On this blog all the reasons for the major differences between older translations like the KJV and modern translations like the NIV are given in plain English. All differences have logical explanations, but rather have the real naked facts! The only difference I found in more than 130 Scriptures studied that touches on a Biblical conviction is Revelation 22:14.
A list of Scriptures already studied can be found at “Scriptures“. If you miss something that is important to you, e-mail me (firstname.lastname@example.org) and I will provide the facts.
See what the blog “Bible Differences” can provide and how it may be of use to you. I focus mainly on the New Testament, but occasionally look at something from the Old Testament.
A list of Scriptures already studied can be found at “Scriptures“.
- There are some alarming differences between older versions of the Bible, like the King James Version (KJV) and modern versions like the New International Version (NIV).
- The integrity and expertise of Bible translators are above question. Therefore the differences must have a legitimate, logic cause.
- The three main causes for most of the differences are:
3.1 Translation method. The KJV is a direct or word-for-word translation while the NIV is a Dynamic Equivalent, or thought-for-thought translation. Should one stick to the word “lunatic”, commonly used for a irresponsible person when referring to the afflicted son in Mat.17:15?
3.2 Linguistic considerations. What should we do when the meaning of a word changes over time?
3.3 Source text. Many older versions were translated using the Textus Receptus (TR) based on only 6 late manuscripts (±1200-1620) and giving the translator no choice between variations in the manuscripts. Most modern versions use the Nestle Aland text, or the text compiled by the United Bible Societies, taking into account more than 5600 Greek manuscripts, dated from ±125 to 1620, supported by over 19000 manuscripts of ancient translations and quotations of more than 220 Church Fathers. Manuscript evidence is given at every verse enabling the translator to make an informed decision. Should one keep the elaboration on 1 John 5:7-8 when only one Greek manuscript (±1350), and only some Latin manuscripts and only Latin Church Fathers know of its existence up to the first printed version of 1615?
Do also look at the following aspects:
- In all handwritten manuscripts, variations do exist. Some are unintentional, other alterations were deliberate.
- Legitimate evaluation criteria to evaluate manuscripts themselves as well as typical use of words by the author are used.
- Where possible, the effect of alterations on the understanding of the scripture under surveillance is given. Acts 8:37
- Not a single aspect of faith or Christian doctrine is affected by about 100 Scriptures studied on this blog, except for Revelation 22:14, where the translation in the KJV has to be interpreted and not taken on the common English understanding of the sentence.
- I invite readers of this blog to pose their questions and I promise to give all facts to my disposal.
- I also post some graphics of extraordinary manuscripts with links where they may be studied online.
- For my Afrikaans readers, I provide most of the same material at www.bybelverskille.wordpress.com.
My prayer is that this blog may enable readers to an informed decision and certainty in their walk with God.
May God be glorified!