Welcome! Start here!

Welcome! Start here!

See what the blog “Bible Differences” can provide and how it may be of use to you. I focus mainly on the New Testament, but occasionally look at something from the Old Testament.

A list of Scriptures already studied can be found at “Scriptures“.

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94 How Harmonizing could have happened, Matthew 20:22-23

94 How Harmonizing could have happened, Matthew 20:22-23

Have you ever read a verse in the Bible and just know it’s not complete?

Fathom yourself being a monk in the middle ages, busy copying the gospel of Matthew in your cold cell in the monastery. You come to the part where the mother of John and James requested Jesus to promise that her sons would sit beside Him on his throne in his kingdom. And when reading Jesus’ answer you just know that Jesus said more than is written in the source manuscript you are copying. He didn’t only speak of the cup He would drink, but also of the baptism He would be baptised with, didn’t He? And yet in this manuscript is written: “But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of? They say unto him, We are able. And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give…” Surely Jesus also spoke of the baptism He would be baptised with. Continue reading

Posted in Causes for Variations, KJV/NIV Controversy, Textus Receptus | 1 Comment

93 Do not touch me. John 20:17

Touch Joh.20:17

In this post I want to look at two important steps in the process of translating the Bible. First how to discern which word has the greatest possibility to be the original word that the author had used. That is vital in those cases where there are more than one variation in the manuscripts to our disposal. Second I would like to look at how one should go about to choose which word in the receiving language best conveys the actual meaning that the original author intended. We look at John 20:17 as an example. Continue reading

Posted in Context, Inspiration of the Holy Spirit, Intrinsic Criteria, KJV/NIV Controversy | Leave a comment

92. “The Spirit was not yet” John 7,39

“The Spirit was not yet” John 7,39
What should one do when the source manuscript you are copying has a sentence that is open for misinterpretation? Should you just copy what is written, or should you add that which you might suspect had been left out by the previous scribe?
Young’s Literal Translation of 1898 gives the exact words as is found in the oldest Greek manuscripts John 7,38-39: “`If any one doth thirst, let him come unto me and drink; he who is believing in me, according as the Writing said, Rivers out of his belly shall flow of living water;’ and this he said of the Spirit, which those believing in him were about to receive; for not yet was the Holy Spirit, because Jesus was not yet glorified.”
These words are open to misunderstanding. Could John be thinking that the Holy Spirit did not exist until Jesus had been glorified? Yet already in Genesis 1:2 the Spirit is mentioned as “hovering over the waters. ” He could also not mean that the Holy Spirit had not yet been with Jesus, for he himself reported that John the Baptist had testified that he had seen the Spirit “come down from heaven as a dove and remain on him.” (John 1:32) Continue reading

Posted in Ancient Translations, Context, Internal Criteria | 1 Comment

91 Does Paul believe that all is permissible? 1 Cor.6:12

91 All permissible? 1 Cor.6:12

“All permissible.”

Did Paul believe he had the right to do anything? Was it his conviction that the freedom in Christ gave a believer the right to do anything and to follow any lifestyle? And this directly after he stressed that people who followed certain lifestyles would not “inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.” (1 Cor. 6:9-10) Was Paul contradicting himself? Continue reading

Posted in Intrinsic Criteria, KJV/NIV Controversy | 2 Comments

90 Had Jesus been born the Holy One, or had He been called Holy? Luke 1;35

Had Jesus been born the Holy One, or had He been called Holy? Luke 1;35

Where one puts a comma can sometimes have an effect on the meaning of a sentence. In Luke 1:35 we have an example of this. I quote from Marshall’s interlinear Greek-English New Testament. The words in brackets represent a single word in Greek. “wherefore also {the thing being born} holy {will be called} Son of God.”

The underlined bold word “holy” can equally well be combined with either the preceding word “the thing being born” or with the following word “will be called”. Therefore both the renderings found in the KJV as well as that found in the Bible in Basic English (BBE) are grammatically correct. KJV: “… therefore that holy thing that shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.”

BBE: “and so that which will come to birth will be named holy, Son of God.” Continue reading

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89 Sir or Lord? John 6:34

89 Sir or Lord? John 6:34

In reading the Bible, it is clear when a person was speaking to Jesus, or to some other person. We know Jesus as Lord, but at what stage did the disciples and other followers of Jesus acknowledge Him as Lord, and not merely a rabbi? I am convinced it was only after His resurrection for: “They still did not understand from Scripture that Jesus had to rise from the dead.” (John 20:9)  I think that knowledge broke through when Thomas exclaimed “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28)  How then should we translate referrals to Jesus prior to that time?

Consider the following example: Continue reading

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88 Who bewitched you not to obey the truth?

Who bewitched you? Galatians 3:1
There are certain Biblical truths that can be added after every verse in the Bible, like the refrain “for his mercy is unchanging for ever.” found after each of the 26 statements in Psalm 136. The call “…to obey the truth…”, found in Galatians five verse seven is such a statement. It can be added almost anywhere and it would not be deemed wrong or false. Yet it is not necessary to add it to any statement God did not let be written down in the original autograph.
On the other hand there are statements that, superficially seen, seem to be lacking its second part, either not being written in the first place, or got left out by some mistake. If one finds a comparable “complete” statement a few verses down the road, it might be tempting to transpose that second part of the statement and make complete the previous statement. Continue reading

Posted in Ancient Translations, External Criteria, Internal Criteria, KJV/NIV Controversy, Uncials, Vulgate | Tagged , , , | Leave a comment